Does i = ℵ1 imply a = ℵ1?
Ascertain whether the independence number i equal to ℵ1 implies the almost disjointness number a equals ℵ1, i.e., determine if ZFC proves that i = ℵ1 ⇒ a = ℵ1.
References
It is not even known how to solve: Does $\mathfrak{i}=\aleph_1$ imply $a =\aleph_1$?
                — Forcing techniques for Cichoń's Maximum: Lecture notes for the mini-course at the University of Vienna
                
                (2402.11852 - Mejía, 19 Feb 2024) in Section 1 (Tukey connections and cardinal characteristics), immediately following the discussion of a and i